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Detailed New CV0-004 Exam Questions for Concept Clearance
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following do developers use to keep track of changes made during software development projects?
- A. Code versioning
- B. Code control
- C. Code testing
- D. Code drifting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Developers use code versioning to keep track of changes made during software development projects. It is a system that records changes to a file or set of files over time so that specific versions can be recalled later. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) - Chapter on Software Development in Cloud Environments
NEW QUESTION # 79
A SaaS provider introduced new software functionality for customers as part of quarterly production enhancements. After an update is implemented, users cannot locate certain transactions from an inbound integration. During the investigation, the application owner finds the following error in the logs:
Error: REST API - Deprecated call is no longer supported in this release.
Which of the following is the best action for the application owner to take to resolve the issue?
- A. Ask the users to monitor the quarterly updates.
- B. Revert the application to the last stable quarterly release.
- C. Update the custom integration to use a supported function.
- D. Include the custom integration in the quarterly testing scope.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The error message indicates that the SaaS provider has deprecated a function that was previously called by the custom integration. The best action for the application owner to take is to update the custom integration to use a function that is supported in the current release. This is a direct solution to the problem and ensures the custom integration conforms to the updated SaaS provider's API. Reference: Based on the error message provided and standard practices for dealing with deprecated API calls in a SaaS environment.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A cloud administrator set up a link between the private and public cloud through a VPN tunnel. As part of the migration, a large set of files will be copied. Which of the following network ports are required from a security perspective?
- A. 25, 123, 443
- B. 22, 53, 445
- C. 137, 139, 445
- D. 22, 443, 445
Answer: D
Explanation:
The following ports are required from a security perspective:
Port 22: This is the SSH port, which is used for secure remote access.
Port 443: This is the HTTPS port, which is used for secure web traffic.
Port 445: This is the SMB port, which is used for file sharing.
NEW QUESTION # 81
A software engineer is integrating an application lo The cloud that is web socket based. Which of the following applications is the engineer most likely deploying?
- A. Data visualization
- B. File transfer
- C. Image-sharing
- D. Chat
Answer: D
Explanation:
A chat application is most likely to be deployed when integrating a web socket-based application to the cloud.
Web sockets provide full-duplex communication channels over a single, long-lived connection, which is ideal for real-time applications like chat services that require persistent connections between the client and server for instant data exchange.
CompTIA Cloud+ materials cover cloud networking concepts, emphasizing the importance of choosing the right technologies, like web sockets, for specific application requirements to ensure efficient and responsive cloud-based services.
NEW QUESTION # 82
A cloud engineer wants to implement a monitoring solution to detect cryptojacking and other cryptomining malware on cloud instances. Which of the following metrics would most likely be used to identify the activity?
- A. Network packets
- B. Average memory utilization
- C. Disk I/O
- D. Percent of CPU utilization
Answer: D
Explanation:
To detect cryptojacking and other cryptomining malware on cloud instances, monitoring the percent of CPU utilization is most effective. Cryptomining malware typically consumes a significant amount of CPU resources for mining operations, leading to unusually high CPU usage. Monitoring and analyzing CPU utilization metrics can help identify instances of cryptojacking by highlighting abnormal levels of resource consumption.
Understanding management and technical operations in cloud environments, as outlined in the CompTIA Cloud+ objectives, includes the use of monitoring solutions to detect and respond to security threats like cryptomining malware, ensuring the integrity and performance of cloud resources.
NEW QUESTION # 83
An organization uses a cloud provider's specific features to host applications. The organization planned to move to another cloud provider due to rising costs, but moving was not technically feasible. Which of the following best describes this situation?
- A. Platform as a service
- B. Oversubscription
- C. Regulatory compliance
- D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: D
Explanation:
This scenario describes vendor lock-in, which occurs when an organization becomes highly dependent on a specific cloud provider's proprietary services, architectures, APIs, or managed features, making migration to another provider difficult, costly, or technically impractical. In the CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-004) objectives related to cloud design, risk management, and interoperability, vendor lock-in is a known risk that can impact long-term cost control, flexibility, and negotiating power. When applications are built around provider- specific components (such as proprietary databases, messaging services, identity integrations, serverless runtimes, or monitoring tools), moving to another provider often requires major redesign, refactoring, or data transformation-far beyond a simple "lift and shift." Option A (PaaS) is a service model and may contribute to lock-in, but it is not the situation described. Option B (oversubscription) refers to allocating more virtual resources than physically available. Option D (regulatory compliance) relates to meeting legal/industry requirements. Because the key issue is that reliance on provider-specific features prevents feasible migration, vendor lock-in is the best answer.
NEW QUESTION # 84
A project manager is taking notes along with gathering feedback about a prior project in order to consider known issues with a project enhancement. Which of the following best describes the plan that the project team is working on?
- A. A plan for documenting the outcomes of the project
- B. A plan for capturing issues and conflicts in a project's knowledge base
- C. A plan for addressing and resolving identified issues once the project has been completed
- D. A plan for avoiding potential issues that may arise during project execution
Answer: D
Explanation:
The team is leveraging lessons learned to create a preventive plan for avoiding issues in the upcoming project enhancement. This falls under risk management and compliance, ensuring previous failures do not repeat.
NEW QUESTION # 85
A company developed an online trading platform. The engineering team selected event-based scaling for the platform's underlying resources. The platform resources scale up with every 2,000 subscribed users. The engineering team finds out that although compute utilization is low scaling is still occurring. Which of the following statements best explains why this is the case?
- A. Event-based scaling should not be triggered at the 2,000-user frequency.
- B. Event-based scaling should not track user subscriptions.
- C. Event-based scaling does not scale down resources.
- D. Event-based scaling does not take resource load into account.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Event-based scaling triggers resource adjustments based on predefined events rather than actual compute utilization or system load. In this case, the system is scaling up every time
2,000 new users subscribe, regardless of whether the underlying compute resources are actually under stress. This can lead to unnecessary scaling, increasing costs without improving performance.
To optimize scaling, the engineering team should consider a hybrid approach that combines event-based triggers with resource utilization metrics (e.g., CPU, memory, or network load) to prevent over-provisioning.
NEW QUESTION # 86
A user's assigned cloud credentials are locked, and the user is unable to access the project's application. The cloud administrator reviews the logs and notices several attempts to log in with the user's account were made to a different application after working hours. Which of the following is the best approach for the administrator to troubleshoot this issue?
- A. Track the source of the log-in attempts and block the IP address of the source in the WAR
- B. Install an IDS on the network to monitor suspicious activity
- C. Reset the user's account and implement a stronger lock-out policy.
- D. Create new credentials for the user and restrict access to the authorized application.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The administrator should track the source of the log-in attempts and block the IP address in the Web Application Firewall (WAF). This will prevent further unauthorized attempts from that source. It is also advisable to reset the user's account credentials as a precautionary measure.
Incident response and addressing unauthorized access attempts, including tracking and blocking IP addresses, are security measures addressed in the CompTIA Cloud+ material.
NEW QUESTION # 87
A group of cloud administrators frequently uses the same deployment template to recreate a cloud-based development environment. The administrators are unable to go back and review the history of changes they have made to the template. Which of the following cloud resource deployment concepts should the administrator start using?
- A. Repeatability
- B. Versioning
- C. Drift detection
- D. Documentation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Versioning is a concept that allows cloud administrators to keep track of the history of changes made to deployment templates or any other configuration file. By using version control systems, they can review previous versions, roll back to earlier configurations if necessary, and understand the evolution of the deployment template over time.
NEW QUESTION # 88
A banking firm's cloud server will be decommissioned after a successful proof of concept using mirrored dat a. Which of the following is the best action to take regarding the storage used on the decommissioned server?
- A. Retain it permanently
- B. Archive it.
- C. Keep it temporarily.
- D. Delete it.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a cloud server is decommissioned after a proof of concept, the best action to take regarding the storage used on the server is to archive it. Archiving ensures that the data is kept in a less accessible but secure storage service, which may be required for regulatory or compliance reasons, especially for a banking firm.
Reference: Data management strategies, including archiving decommissioned data, are covered in the CompTIA Cloud+ examination objectives, particularly within the domain of management and technical operations.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following industry standards mentions that credit card data must not be exchanged or stored in cleartext?
- A. SOC2
- B. GDPR
- C. CSA
- D. PCI-DSS
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) is the industry standard that mandates that credit card data must not be stored or transmitted in cleartext. It includes requirements for encryption, access control, and other security measures to protect cardholder data. References: Official PCI Security Standards Council Site.
NEW QUESTION # 90
A company uses containers to implement a web application. The development team completed internal testing of a new feature and is ready to move the feature to the production environment.
Which of the following deployment models would best meet the company's needs while minimizing cost and targeting a specific subset of its users?
- A. Rolling
- B. Blue-green
- C. Canary
- D. In-place
Answer: C
Explanation:
The canary deployment model is an approach where a new feature or service is rolled out to a small subset of users before being deployed widely. This method allows the company to test the impact of the new feature in the production environment with a limited scope, minimizing risk and potential cost implications if issues arise. This approach contrasts with blue-green deployments, which involve switching between two identical environments; rolling deployments, which gradually update all instances; and in-place deployments, which update the current environment. The canary model is particularly suited for targeting specific user groups and gathering feedback before a full rollout.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following types of storage is read-only and is accessed only when needed?
- A. Cold
- B. Hot
- C. Archive
- D. Warm
Answer: C
Explanation:
Archive storage is designed for long-term retention, is typically read-only, and accessed only when needed, such as for compliance or historical data retrieval.
NEW QUESTION # 92
SIMULATION 4
You are a cloud engineer working for a cloud service provider that is responsible for an IaaS offering.
Your customer, who creates VMs and manages virtual storage, has noticed I/O bandwidth issues and low IOPS (under 9000).
Your manager wants you to verify the proper storage configuration as dictated by your service level agreement (SLA).
The SLA specifies:
- Each SFP on the hypervisor host must be set to the maximum link speed allowed by the SAN array.
- All SAN array disk groups must be configured in a RAID 5.
- The SAN array must be fully configured for redundant fabric paths.
- IOPS should not fall below 14000
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each service processor to review the displayed information. Then click on the drop-down menus to change the settings of each device as necessary to conform to the SLA requirements.
SIMULATION 4
You are a cloud engineer working for a cloud service provider that is responsible for an IaaS offering.
Your customer, who creates VMs and manages virtual storage, has noticed I/O bandwidth issues and low IOPS (under 9000).
Your manager wants you to verify the proper storage configuration as dictated by your service level agreement (SLA).
The SLA specifies:
- Each SFP on the hypervisor host must be set to the maximum link speed allowed by the SAN array.
- All SAN array disk groups must be configured in a RAID 5.
- The SAN array must be fully configured for redundant fabric paths.
- IOPS should not fall below 14000
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each service processor to review the displayed information. Then click on the drop-down menus to change the settings of each device as necessary to conform to the SLA requirements.
Answer:
Explanation:
Slot A and Slot B Fiber Channel Cards on Hypervisor Host:
Set Port 1 and Port 2 link speeds for both Slot A and Slot B to 16 Gbps (the maximum link speed allowed by the SAN array), which will help maximize I/O bandwidth.
Fabric Switch A:
From the WWPN pool provided, select two unique WWPN addresses for Fabric Switch A's initiator table. For redundancy and performance, these should be linked to both Service Processor A and Service Processor B in the SAN.
Suggested choices:
50:00:00:25:B5:A0:23:04 (SPA)
50:00:00:25:B5:A0:23:06 (SPB)
Fabric Switch B:
Similarly, select two unique WWPN addresses for Fabric Switch B's initiator table, ensuring these are connected to both Service Processors for redundancy.
Suggested choices:
50:00:00:25:B5:A0:23:02 (SPA)
50:00:00:25:B5:A0:23:05 (SPB)
NEW QUESTION # 93
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