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220-1101 PDF Questions and Testing Engine With 587 Questions
CompTIA 220-1101 exam covers a wide range of topics related to hardware, software, networking, and troubleshooting. It includes questions on computer components and peripherals, mobile devices, networking technologies, cloud computing, virtualization, and security. 220-1101 exam also tests the candidate's ability to troubleshoot common hardware and software problems and perform basic maintenance tasks.
The CompTIA 220-1101 exam comprises of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions that must be completed within 90 minutes. The performance-based questions require candidates to perform specific tasks related to computer hardware and software, such as installing operating systems, configuring network devices, and troubleshooting hardware issues. 220-1101 exam is designed for IT professionals with at least six months of experience in a technical support or IT operational role.
NEW QUESTION # 241
A network technician needs to provide better wireless connectivity throughout a SOHO location. Which of the following should the technician deploy to best improve connectivity?
- A. Wi-Fi router
- B. Access point
- C. POE hub
- D. Managed switch
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is
A) Access point.
An access point is a device that extends the wireless coverage of a network by creating a hotspot that allows wireless devices to connect to the network1. An access point can be connected to a router or a switch via an Ethernet cable or a wireless bridge1. By deploying one or more access points throughout a SOHO location, the technician can provide better wireless connectivity and eliminate dead zones or weak signals2.
A managed switch is a device that allows multiple devices to communicate on a network by forwarding data packets based on their destination addresses3. A managed switch can also provide advanced features such as VLANs, QoS, security, and remote management3. However, a managed switch does not improve wireless connectivity, as it only works with wired devices.
A POE hub is a device that provides power and data over a single Ethernet cable to devices that support Power over Ethernet (PoE) technology, such as IP cameras, VoIP phones, and wireless access points4. A POE hub can simplify the installation and placement of these devices by eliminating the need for separate power adapters or outlets4. However, a POE hub does not improve wireless connectivity by itself, as it still requires an access point or a router to create a wireless network.
A Wi-Fi router is a device that combines the functions of a router and an access point, providing both wired and wireless connectivity to a network and the internet. A Wi-Fi router can be used to create a SOHO network, but it may not be sufficient to cover the entire location with a strong and reliable wireless signal. To improve wireless connectivity, the technician may need to add additional access points or use a mesh Wi-Fi system that consists of multiple routers that work together to create a seamless wireless network.
Therefore, an access point is the best option among the choices to improve wireless connectivity throughout a SOHO location.
NEW QUESTION # 242
A technician is setting up a video-editing workstation and the operating system is already installed on an internal M.2 drive.
The new workstation must meet the following requirements:
. Be able to edit files at the fastest speed
. Allow for disk failure without any downtime
Have 2TB of usable space
. Ensure the most robust fault tolerance
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-down menus to select the appropriate RAID level, drive types, and drive sizes based on the requirements above. For each drive type that is selected, a corresponding drive size must also be selected.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Based on the requirements, the best option for the video-editing workstation is to use RAID 10 with four SATA SSDs of 1TB each. This configuration will meet the following requirements:
Be able to edit files at the fastest speed: RAID 10 combines the advantages of RAID 0 and RAID 1, which are striping and mirroring, respectively. Striping can increase the data transfer rate by using multiple disks in parallel, while mirroring can provide redundancy and reliability by duplicating the data on another set of disks. SATA SSDs are also faster than HDDs or SSHDs, as they use flash memory instead of spinning disks, and they can offer lower latency, higher IOPS, and less noise and heat.
Allow for disk failure without any downtime: RAID 10 can withstand up to two disk failures, as long as they are not in the same mirrored pair. If one disk fails, the data can be read from or written to the other disk in the same pair, without affecting the performance or availability of the array. The failed disk can be replaced and rebuilt without interrupting the operation of the workstation.
Have 2TB of usable space: RAID 10 uses half of the total disk capacity for mirroring, so the usable space is equal to the size of two disks. By using four SATA SSDs of 1TB each, the total disk capacity is
4TB, and the usable space is 2TB, which meets the requirement.
Ensure the most robust fault tolerance: RAID 10 offers the highest level of fault tolerance among the standard RAID levels, as it can survive multiple disk failures and provide fast recovery. RAID 10 also has a low overhead, as it does not use parity or checksums, which can slow down the write performance or increase the complexity of the array.
Therefore, the technician should select the following options from the drop-down menus:
RAID level: RAID 10
Drive type 1: SATA SSD
Drive size 1: 1TB
Drive type 2: SATA SSD
Drive size 2: 1TB
Drive type 3: SATA SSD
Drive size 3: 1TB
Drive type 4: SATA SSD
Drive size 4: 1TB
Drive type 5: SATA SSD
Drive size 5: 1TB
NEW QUESTION # 243
Which of the following is considered a connectionless protocol?
- A. SSH
- B. HTTPS
- C. TCP
- D. UDP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is D. UDP.
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that does not establish a connection before sending or receiving data. UDP simply sends datagrams to the destination without checking if the receiver is ready or not. UDP does not guarantee reliable delivery, error correction, or in-order arrival of the data. UDP is faster and more efficient than connection-oriented protocols for applications that do not require reliability, such as streaming audio or video1
A: SSH (Secure Shell) is not a correct answer. SSH is a connection-oriented protocol that uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) as its transport layer. SSH establishes a secure and encrypted connection between two network endpoints before exchanging data. SSH provides authentication, confidentiality, and integrity for remote login and command execution2
B: TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is not a correct answer. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that establishes a connection before sending or receiving data. TCP ensures reliable delivery, error correction, and in-order arrival of the data. TCP is slower and more complex than connectionless protocols, but it provides more reliability and quality of service for applications that require it, such as web browsing or email1
C: HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is not a correct answer. HTTPS is a connection-oriented protocol that uses TCP as its transport layer and SSL/TLS as its security layer. HTTPS establishes a secure and encrypted connection between a web browser and a web server before exchanging data. HTTPS provides authentication, confidentiality, and integrity for web transactions, such as online banking or shopping1
NEW QUESTION # 244
A customer's Windows tablet PC was dropped and is no longer responding to touch input on the left half of the screen. The screen protector has several scratches. but the glass is not broken. Which of the following should a technician do to diagnose the issue?
- A. Perform a factory reset.
- B. Test the digitizer
- C. Replace the damaged screen protector
- D. Update the device drivers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The digitizer is the component that converts the touch input into electrical signals that are processed by the tablet. If the digitizer is damaged or malfunctioning, it may not register the touch input correctly or at all. The technician can test the digitizer using a diagnostic tool or by replacing it with a known good one. Updating the device drivers, replacing the damaged screen protector, or performing a factory reset are unlikely to fix the issue, as they do not address the hardware problem.
NEW QUESTION # 245
A technician is configuring a desktop computer, and the hard drive must be encrypted. Which of the following will the technician need to verify is enabled to complete this configuration?
- A. NIC
- B. ARM
- C. ATX
- D. TPM
Answer: D
Explanation:
TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware component that securely stores encryption keys and other sensitive data12. TPM can be used to enable hard drive encryption, which is a technology that encrypts the data stored on a hard drive using sophisticated mathematical functions34. Hard drive encryption protects the data from unauthorized access in case the hard drive is lost, stolen, or tampered with.
NEW QUESTION # 246
A user has decided to build a new computer with parts purchased from a popular online vendor The user has referenced online resources to assemble the unit. However, when the user presses the power button, the new computer does not load the operating system's installer. Instead, the onboard speaker beeps and immediately reports an issue on the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue with the new build?
- A. The user did not apply thermal paste to the CPU.
- B. The user did not seat the GPU correctly.
- C. The user did not plug in the processor's fan.
- D. The user did not install the power supply.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
If a computer is not booting and the onboard speaker emits beeps, it can indicate a hardware issue. One of the most common causes of beep codes is overheating, which can occur if the processor's fan is not properly installed and running. The processor's fan is responsible for cooling the processor and preventing damage to the internal components.
NEW QUESTION # 247
A technician attempts to join a Windows client to a domain but receives the following error:
An attempt to resolve the hostname has failed.
The technician generates the display shown below utilizing ipconfig /all.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the error?
- A. Default gateway
- B. Subnet mask
- C. DNS
- D. IPv4 address
- E. Physical address
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely reason for the error is that the DNS server is not configured correctly. The technician should check the DNS server settings and make sure they are correct.
DNS, or Domain Name System, is a service that translates domain names, such as www.example.com, into IP addresses, such as 192.168.1.1, that computers use to communicate with each other. DNS is essential for joining a Windows client to a domain, which is a logical group of computers that share a common directory and security policy. A domain name, such as example.com, identifies the domain and its members on the network.
To join a Windows client to a domain, the client needs to resolve the hostname of the domain controller, which is the server that manages the domain and its resources. The client sends a DNS query to the DNS server, asking for the IP address of the domain controller. The DNS server responds with the IP address, and the client uses it to establish a connection with the domain controller and complete the domain join process.
However, if the DNS server is not configured correctly, the client may not be able to resolve the hostname of the domain controller, and receive the error: An attempt to resolve the hostname has failed. This can happen if the DNS server is not reachable, not authoritative, or not updated. For example, the DNS server may have an incorrect IP address, a wrong DNS suffix, a missing or outdated DNS record, or a firewall blocking the DNS traffic.
To fix the error, the technician should verify that the DNS server settings on the client and the domain controller are correct and consistent. The technician can use the ipconfig /all command to display the DNS server settings, such as the IPv4 address, the subnet mask, the default gateway, and the DNS suffix. The technician can also use the nslookup command to test the DNS resolution and the ping command to test the connectivity. The technician should make sure that the client and the domain controller are using the same DNS server, and that the DNS server can resolve the hostname of the domain controller.
Reference:
How to Resolve the "Temporary failure in name resolution" Error1
Strict hostname resolution configured but no hostname was set2
Error: Hostname Not Resolved to an IP Address - HostGator3
The Host Name Could Not be Resolved in DNS4
Troubleshoot DNS name resolution on the Internet - Windows Server5
NEW QUESTION # 248
A technician configured a new SOHO router for a small business. The ISP gave the technician an IP address on the router's WAN port. Which of the following addresses did the technician most likely configure on the router?
- A. 172.22.40.6
- B. 169.254.168.10
- C. 10.1.50.30
- D. 19.45.7.28
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is an example of a public IP address that can be assigned by an ISP to a router's WAN (Wide Area Network) port. A public IP address is a globally unique and routable address that allows a device to communicate with other devices on the internet. A private IP address, such as 10.1.50.30 or 172.22.40.6, is a non-routable address that is used within a local network and cannot be directly accessed from the internet. A link-local IP address, such as 169.254.168.10, is a self-assigned address that is used when a device cannot obtain a valid IP address from a DHCP server.
NEW QUESTION # 249
A printer technician receives a support request for a laser printer that sometimes cuts off the bottom of the print job. During troubleshooting the technician notices that affected jobs are set for 8.5in x 14in (216mm x 356mm) paper and only print from a particular paper tray. Which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?
- A. Verify that the printing trays are correctly set.
- B. Replace the tray rollers to ensure proper alignment.
- C. Reset the default to use 8.5in x 11in (216mm x 279mm) paper
- D. Swap printer trays until the print jobs complete as expected.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the problem is that the printing trays are not configured to match the paper size of the print jobs. The technician should verify that the printing trays are correctly set for 8.5in x 14in (216mm x 356mm) paper and that the printer driver settings match the tray settings. This will ensure that the printer can feed and print the paper correctly without cutting off any part of the document. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-1-content-guide (page 16)
NEW QUESTION # 250
A company wants to use client-side visualization for application testing. Which of the following configurations would BEST support this goal?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 251
A customer called the help desk to request information about how to increase the volume on a laptop using only a keyboard. Which of the following keys would MOST likely allow this to be done?
- A. Tab
- B. Fn
- C. Alt
- D. Ctrl
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
To increase the volume on a laptop using only a keyboard, a user can press and hold down the Fn key while pressing one of the function keys (usually F1-F12) that has an icon representing volume up.
NEW QUESTION # 252
Laura, a customer, has instructed you to configure her home office wireless access point.
She plans to use the wireless network for finances and has requested that the network be setup with the highest encryption possible.
Additionally, Laura knows that her neighbors have wireless networks and wants to ensure that her network is not being interfered with by the other networks.
She requests that the default settings be changed to the following.
Wireless Name: HomeWiFi
Shared Key: CompTIA
Router Password: Secure$1
Finally, Laura wants to ensure that only her laptop and Smartphone can connect to the network.
Laptop: IP Address 192.168.1.100
Hardware Address: 00:0A:BF:03:C4:54
Smartphone: IP Address 192.168.1.101
Hardware Address: 09:2C:D0:22:3F:11
INSTRUCTIONS
Configure Laura's wireless network using the network adapter window.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the situation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the explanation below
Explanation
solution as
NEW QUESTION # 253
Which of the following network devices operates as a bridge function?
- A. Wireless access point
- B. Hub
- C. Transceiver
- D. Media converter
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A media converter is a network device that operates as a bridge function, which means it connects two different types of network media, such as copper and fiber optic cables, and converts signals between them.
This allows network devices that use different media types to communicate with each other over long distances or in different environments, without requiring major changes or upgrades to the existing network infrastructure. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220-1101-study-guide (page 73)
NEW QUESTION # 254
A company laptop uses a docking station with an integrated NIC and is unable to access a wired SOHO network using DHCP. A technician runs ipconfig anddiscovers the laptop has an IPv4 assignment of
169.254.0.9. The NIC does not have any link or activity lights on. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A. Restart the laptop in safe mode.
- B. Replace the laptop.
- C. Reset the network adapter.
- D. Reseat the laptop in the docking station.
- E. Reboot the DHCP server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely answer is E. Reseat the laptop in the docking station.
The IPv4 address of 169.254.0.9 indicates that the laptop is using an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA), which means that it could not obtain a valid IP address from the DHCP server on the network1. This could be caused by a physical or logical problem with the network adapter, the cable, the docking station, or the network itself2.
One of the possible solutions is to reseat the laptop in the docking station, which means to remove it and insert it again, making sure that it is properly aligned and connected. This can help fix any loose or faulty connections between the laptop and the docking station, and between the docking station and the network cable3. Reseating the laptop can also trigger a new DHCP request and renew the IP address4.
Other possible solutions include resetting the network adapter, replacing the network cable, rebooting the DHCP server, or restarting the laptop in safe mode. However, these are less likely to be effective than reseating the laptop, as they involve more steps and may not address the root cause of the problem234.
Replacing the laptop is an extreme and unnecessary measure, as there is no evidence that the laptop itself is faulty.
NEW QUESTION # 255
Which of the following models is an example of metered utilization?
- A. Pay-as-you-go
- B. Reserved instance
- C. Multitenant
- D. Subscription-based
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Metered utilization is a pricing model for cloud computing services, where the customer pays only for the amount of resources that are consumed, such as CPU time, memory, storage, bandwidth, etc. The customer is billed based on the actual usage of the resources, rather than a fixed or upfront fee. Metered utilization is also known as usage-based pricing or pay-per-use12.
Pay-as-you-go is an example of metered utilization, where the customer pays for the cloud resources on demand, without any long-term commitment or contract. The customer can scale up or down the resources as needed, and only pay for what is used. Pay-as-you-go is a flexible and cost-effective option for customers who have unpredictable or variable workloads, or who want to try out new services or features12.
The other options are not examples of metered utilization. Reserved instance is a pricing model where the customer pays a discounted rate for a fixed amount of cloud resources for a specified period of time, such as one or three years. The customer can reserve the resources in advance, and benefit from lower costs and guaranteed availability. Reserved instance is suitable for customers who have predictable or steady workloads, or who want to optimize their budget12.
Subscription-based is a pricing model where the customer pays a fixed fee for a set of cloud services or features for a certain period of time, such as monthly or annually. The customer can access the services or features as much as needed, without worrying about the usage or consumption of the resources. Subscription-based is suitable for customers who want to have a consistent and predictable cost, or who want to access premium or exclusive services or features12.
Multitenant is not a pricing model, but a cloud architecture where multiple customers share the same physical or virtual resources, such as servers, databases, applications, etc. The resources are isolated and secured for each customer, and the customers can benefit from lower costs, higher scalability, and faster updates. Multitenant is a common characteristic of public cloud services, where the cloud provider manages and maintains the resources for the customers12.
References:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Cloud Computing and Virtualization, Section 4.2: Cloud Computing Concepts, Page 261 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 6: Cloud Computing and Virtualization, Section 6.2: Cloud Computing Concepts, Page 241
NEW QUESTION # 256
Which of the following server types can dynamically assign primary and secondary DNS?
- A. Global catalog server
- B. Web server
- C. DHCP server
- D. Name server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server is a server type that can dynamically assign IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to clients, such as primary and secondary DNS (Domain Name System) servers. DNS servers are responsible for resolving hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. A global catalog server, a web server, and a name server are not involved in DHCP operations.
NEW QUESTION # 257
A technician installed new firmware on the company's laser printers and has since been receiving multiple calls that information is garbled and looks like code. Only printers with the new firmware are having this issue. Which of the following steps should the technician complete NEXT?
- A. Change the language settings on the printers
- B. Reboot all the machines having the issues
- C. Install an updated printer driver on the print server
- D. Reboot all the printers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The MOST efficient next step the technician should complete is to install an updated printer driver on the print server12. The issue of information being garbled and looking like code could be related to a compatibility issue with the new firmware and the existing printer driver1. The printer driver is responsible for converting the print job data into a format that the printer can understand and print2.
NEW QUESTION # 258
A technician just finished building a new PC and needs to install a firmware update for the system board UEFI. The technician is experiencing issues while accessing the USB key. Which of the following features should the technician most likely disable in order to complete this task?
- A. TPM security
- B. USB 3.0 support
- C. PXE boot capability
- D. Secure Boot
Answer: D
Explanation:
Secure Boot is a feature of UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) that prevents unauthorized software from running during the boot process. Secure Boot verifies the digital signature of the boot loader and the operating system, and only allows them to run if they are signed by a trusted authority. However, Secure Boot can also prevent some legitimate software, such as firmware updates, from running if they are not signed or recognized by the system. Therefore, the technician may need to disable Secure Boot in order to install a firmware update for the system board UEFI from a USB key34. The other features are not likely to interfere with the firmware update, unless they are misconfigured or incompatible with the USB key.
Reference
3: bios - Can't enable secure boot in Windows 11
4: Acer aspire e5-571 Legacy Secure Boot?
NEW QUESTION # 259
An office manager reports that a printer is experiencing performance issues. Printouts are smudging when they are handled, and. recently, whenever the manager tries to print oversized documents, the paper jams before anything is printed on it.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 260
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